Jones & Bartlett Learning (JBL) Module 2 Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• You should suspect respiratory failure if the patient demonstrates which sign?
• The rapid exam of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment should take no longer than:
• During assessment of a patient with respiratory distress, wheezing is heard on auscultation. This most likely indicates:
• You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient. Your partner is controlling severe bleeding from the patient's lower extremities as you attempt ventilations with a bag-valve mask. After repositioning the mask several times, you are unable to effectively ventilate the patient. You should:
• Which structure is NOT found in the upper airway?
• The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it:
• The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood of the capillaries is called:
• At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to:
• What is described as the main advantage of the Venturi mask?
• Which oxygen flowmeter is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder?
• The hypoxic drive is influenced by which condition?
• CPR retraining is MOST effective when:
• Which statement regarding oxygenation and ventilation is correct?
• Which cardiac event corresponds to the systolic reading on a blood pressure measurement?
• A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted: which statement is correct about insertion into the right nare?
• Which of the following patients is breathing adequately?
• Which tissue experiences lactic acid buildup during intense exercise?
• Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense:
• Exhalation, in contrast to inhalation, is described as which of the following?
• The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is ______ mm Hg, while the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is ______ mm Hg.
• The chief complaint is defined as the patient’s most serious concern at present. Which option expresses this concept?
• A man is found unresponsive with a cyanotic face, but the pulse oximeter shows 98%. Which is the most likely explanation?
• You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving?
• Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct?
• The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called:
• Intrapulmonary shunting results in blood bypassing nonfunctional alveoli and returning to the left side of the heart in an unoxygenated state. This describes:
• GCS stands for which of the following?
• Which of the following is NOT a complication associated with chest compressions?
• The alveolar gas values of 104 mm Hg O2 and 40 mm Hg CO2 correspond to which of the following descriptions?
• Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct?
• You are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-valve mask. She has dentures, which are tight fitting. Adequate chest rise is present with each ventilation, and the patient's oxygen saturation reads 96%. When you reassess the patency of her airway, you note that her dentures are now loose, although your ventilations are still producing adequate chest rise. You should:
• Which scenario does not involve the presence of any symptoms?
• During two-rescuer CPR, where should the second rescuer move after the first finishes a cycle?
• You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, she notes that it has decreased significantly from previous readings. You should:
• Which would cause an increase in the amount of exhaled carbon dioxide?
• Which statement is true regarding the flow rate for a nonrebreathing mask?
• Which airway maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma?
• During two-rescuer CPR, what should the second rescuer do after the first finishes a cycle?
• Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when:
• To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the:
• While providing CPAP to a patient in severe respiratory distress, you note that his heart rate has increased by 20 beats/min and he is no longer following verbal commands. What should you do?
• Which term describes a structure closer to the point of attachment to the body trunk?
• Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask to a patient, you must ensure that the:
• Which statement regarding the one-person bag-valve mask technique is correct?
• What is the net effect of using an impedance threshold device during CPR?
• A patient has a total GCS score of 9 with eye opening to pain (E2), verbal response of incomprehensible sounds (V3), and motor response of withdraws from pain (M4). Which of the following clinical descriptions is consistent with this GCS score?
• While choking on dinner, a person has a weak cough, faint inspiratory stridor, and cyanosis around the lips. What should you do first?
• The term for the gas exchange between the alveolar air and the pulmonary capillary blood is:
• In relation to the chest, the back is:
• What molecule is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration?
• Which statement about the secondary assessment is correct?
• Which term best describes a mismatch between ventilation and perfusion in the lungs?
• If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should:
• Which ventilation technique uses a mask with a one-way valve to prevent cross-contamination and is suitable for single-rescuer ventilation?
• Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position?
• The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the:
• Which term describes the front of the body?
• Which term describes toward the midline of the body?
• Which organ system is primarily responsible for gas exchange?
• Which metabolic waste is primarily eliminated by the kidneys?
• CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:
• Palpable pulse is created by:
• Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?
• Which intrathoracic pressure is generated during recoil with the impedance threshold device?
• Which tissue can survive the longest without oxygen?
• Your protocols state that during the first few minutes of working on a cardiac arrest patient, you should provide passive ventilation. This means that you will:
• Inhalation occurs when which of the following happens?
• As the single EMT managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is:
• In the handgun-in-residence scenario, which action is indicated to manage safety?
• Compared with mouth-to-mask ventilation, bag-valve mask ventilation delivers what?
• CPR should be initiated when a living will is unavailable. Which option best reflects this guidance?
• The process described as gas exchange between the alveoli and blood is external respiration. Which of the following statements best describes this process?
• A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is:
• Where should the second rescuer typically position themselves during two-rescuer CPR?
• In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the:
• An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than:
• When approaching a patient with suspected traumatic neck pain, which action best ensures the patient understands your approach?
• If a conscious young female patient is hyperventilating with a marked reduction in tidal volume, what should you do?
• During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:
• Which organ exchanges gases with the bloodstream?
• Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT:
• Which structure lies in the mediastinum besides the heart?
• Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:
• The MOST significant complication associated with oropharyngeal suctioning is:
• Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient includes:
• Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct?
• A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" in this measurement represents:
• Inhalation occurs when the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. This describes:
• Which statement about nasal cannula oxygen delivery is true when delivering 6 L/min?
• Which of the following factors will cause a decreased minute volume in an adult?
• If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that:
• Which expresses the standard adult chest compression-to-ventilation ratio?
• Which statement best explains the role of surfactant in gas exchange?
• During bag-valve mask ventilation on an apneic patient with a pulse, which observation most reliably indicates effective ventilation?
• Which are the waste products of aerobic metabolism?
• Which position would make CPR ineffective?
• Which statement best describes the action of chest recoil during CPR?
• What is the appropriate action when a handgun is present in a residence during an EMS assessment?
• When you shine a light into one pupil, what is the normal reaction of the opposite pupil?
• The diaphragm is innervated by the _________ nerve, which allows it to contract.
• In patients with deeply pigmented skin, color changes may be most reliably observed in the lips or oral mucosa. Which option lists these areas correctly?
• An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she:
• When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than:
• During the scene size-up, which action would not be performed?
• Which of the following would not cause a decrease in minute volume?
• Which statement about mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct?
• Which of the following best describes the diaphragm's role in inhalation?
• Which of the following is the most reliable indicator of adequately performed bag-valve mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse?
• What complications are associated with using a manually triggered ventilation device?
• Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by which of the following?
• Which term describes irregular respirations with gasping that may precede death?
• In an environment with low ambient oxygen but adequate ventilation, which process may continue despite low oxygenation?
• A patient who is suspected to be hypoxic but breathing adequately should receive oxygen through which device?
• Which device delivers the highest concentration of oxygen with a reservoir bag?
• For a conscious adult with a severe airway obstruction, which technique is recommended?
• If air escapes through the mouth when ventilating through a stoma, what step should you take?
• Which oxygen delivery device typically lacks an oxygen reservoir?
• Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after:
• A patient has E3 V4 M5 on the Glasgow Coma Scale. What is the total GCS score?
• Between each chest compression, you should:
• Which structure is contained within the mediastinum?
• Which is not a waste product of aerobic metabolism?
• Which statement about oxygen safety is true?
• Which substrate is primarily used to produce energy in aerobic metabolism?
• Minute volume is determined by which factors?
• In an unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic patient, which action is recommended?
• In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:
• If you observe an object in an unconscious patient's airway, what should you do?
• A 51-year-old female presents with sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. Which action is most appropriate?
• Which flow rate is commonly used with a well-sealed nonrebreathing mask to deliver up to about 90% inspired oxygen?
• Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should:
• A 23-year-old male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretions in his mouth. Which airway management sequence is most appropriate?
• Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia?
• If chest barely moves during inhalation and the respiratory rate is normal, which respiratory parameter is most likely decreased?
• What happens when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly?
• Without regular practice, your CPR skills will:
• Which action between chest compressions is essential to maximize effectiveness?
• Which molecule is the primary energy carrier produced during respiration?
• In hypoxic cells, energy production occurs primarily through which process, leading to lactate buildup?
• Which factor is the primary driver of central chemoreceptor-mediated changes in respiratory rate?
• A 19-year-old female is unconscious and you insert an oropharyngeal airway, but she begins to gag violently. What is the best immediate action?
• The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in which of the following structures?
• Which statement best describes the approach to the secondary assessment when life threats are present?
• A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio mismatch occurs when:
• If jaw-thrust maneuver is unsuccessful, which step should you take next?
• Which statement about Bourdon-gauge flowmeters is true?
• Which condition is least likely to cause an altered level of consciousness?
• CPR should be initiated when:
• Which statement is NOT a sign of sudden severe upper airway obstruction?
• Which statement describes how CPAP improves oxygenation and ventilation in certain respiratory conditions?
• The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately ______ psi.
• Basic life support (BLS) is best described as which of the following?
• Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells:
• Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when which describes blood flow?
• During cellular respiration, which process releases carbon dioxide?
• An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus on:
• Which patient would make the head tilt-chin lift maneuver the most appropriate method of opening the airway?
• You are ventilating a patient with a stoma; however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should:
• Based on current guidelines, in which of the following situations should supplemental oxygen be administered?
• When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:
• What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR?
• Which leaf-shaped structure is located superior to the larynx?
• Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:
• Basic life support (BLS) is best described as which of the following?
• The impedance threshold device may improve circulation during CPR by:
• What is the typical range for the duration of a rapid exam after the primary assessment?
• A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted: which statement is correct in terms of orientation for the right nare?
• Which term describes a structure closer to the body surface?
• With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to ______% inspired oxygen.
• During CPR on a pregnant patient, after manually displacing the uterus to the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. What explains this most likely?
• Which statement regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct?
• If suctioning is needed while inserting an oropharyngeal airway in an unconscious patient, which action is recommended?
• The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is:
• Which action would be appropriate as part of the scene size-up?